MadSci Network: Physics |
I know that this is a stupid question, but a number of people that I am aquainted with seem to assert that an object or particle traveling faster than the speed of light would go back in time, thus arriving before it left and potentially returning to it's starting point before it left, violating causality. My reading of the time dilation effect seems to suggest that any backwards time flow would be restricted to the frame of reference (Hah, typed in reverence by mistake just now) and thus the particle would experience reversed time flow, thus becoming 'younger', but the frame of reference of the rest of the universe, and specifically us on earth, would not experience any such reversion. Hence, if my clock went on a faster than light trip to the moon and came back, it would not be a second ahead of me, but one second behind, just as it would come back if it had gone at any other relativeistic speed. I really hope that made sense. I looked though the archive, honest, but I must just not have used the right search terms or something. Thanks! Richard.
Re: Faster than light time dilation effect.
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