MadSci Network: Chemistry |
This is a good question and one that the answer is not easily available. However, I did eventually find one text that offered an explanation. To set this up, I should point out that metals, such as magnesium, are held together in a lattice by metallic bonds. One way of modelling this is to assume that the nucleus of the element is a "cation" and that the valence electron is an "anion". The result is that metals are then subjected to the sort of analysis that you would do for any crystalline salt - that is, the electrostatic interaction between the metal and the electron is the binding energy. A Group II element, being divalent, would then have two electrons as counter ions. A mole of cations would be expected to have two moles of anions associated with it. As James Bowser explains in "Inorganic Chemistry" (Brooks/Cole Publishing Company, 1993): "... Lithium has a comparatively low conductivity because of its high ionization energy relative to the others; that is, it "cheats" (on average, delocalizes less than 1 mole of electrons per mole of atoms), so its conductivity is lower than expected. The same rationale can be applied to the Group 2 elements, where the conductivities of the first two elements, beryllium and magnesium, are low in comparison to the others. This suggests that their higher ionization energies limit delocalization to fewer than 2 moles of electrons per mole of atoms. This also explains the comparatively low melting temperatures of Be and Mg. If fewer than two electrons are delocalized, then the resulting lattice energy must be lowered accordingly." This is the only explanation that I found and it does make sense. Most texts seem to note the anomoly but do not explain it. I hope this answers your question - although it does beg a follow-up: Why are the ionization energies anomolously high?
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