MadSci Network: Science History |
Well over 3 centuries ago Fermat jotted down in the margin of a book, more or less, his famous last conjecture (which has now become a theroem thanks to Mr. Andrew Wiles). All Mathematicians know that without the mathematics that the 20th century devised/created that he could never have prooven Fermat's statement to be either true or false. But Fermat also wrote of that he had a 'marvelous proof for this that which the margin would not hold'. Does this mean that there is still another way of prooving his statement using, possibly, 17th century mathematics?
Re: Could Fermat's Last Thereom be prooved using older mathematics?
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