MadSci Network: Physics |
There was a similar question already answered and I qoute "If friction forces don't vary with surf. area, why are race car tires wide?". The answer given was based on automotive engineering. However if we limit the question to just a matter of static friction, would the statement; 'friction is indpendent of surface area' still hold true? Picture two cars with similar weights, one on regular tires and one on bicycle tires on a smooth surface (say glass). Would the force (to counteract static friction) needed to make them slide (no rolling) be equal? If this is true then wider tires don't make a difference if we are talking only of the static friction they generate? How do you reconcile this with intuition that says the wider tires give you more 'grip'?
Re: If friction is independent of surface area, wide tires should not matter?
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