Re: in Aspect experiment, is QM result consistent with Malus' Law (for waves)

Hello!

Without a specific article to examine, I'm going to say that most likely this is the same prediction. The half-angle difference is probably due to the way the angle "a" was defined in both cases. This is a common problem in physics, particularly in optics, and the only way to know for sure is to carefully examine any figures that might be given in the article. You will probably find that in one paper they defined the angle between the polarizers as "a" and in the other paper it is defined as "a/2."

Hope this helps,
Amber