|MadSci Network: Physics|
Hi! I know similar questions is in the archives, but please it is a difficult problem to grasp (even a little bit). My question is: if two particals which are correlated from the start are separated, and one variable is measured on one of them, you know the value of the variable on the other. Whatīs so strange with this?? The particals were sorrelated from the start - one has spin up and the othe spin down. If you measure "spin down" on one, the ohter MUST have "spin up", because they have the opposite spin from the beginning. I think Iīve got this experiment wrong (i.e. I havenīt understood it - although Iīve tried hard to get an answer). Please explain what the curiosity is in this experiment. Sincerely Mikael!!
Re: Why is Bellīs theorem, and itīs practical results seen as so spectacular?
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