|MadSci Network: Molecular Biology|
What I'm actually meaning by asking this question is if only a few are maybe it would be possible to have a child using two female gametes but substituting a few genes from a male. This way, say, lesbians would be able to have children that were biologically theirs with only a few genes from a male donor. If almost all, or all, were imprinted maybe there is a way of 'disguising' the female imprinted genes with some kind of coating, like how viruses protect themselves with protein coatings.
Re: Are all human genes epigenetically 'imprinted'?
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