Subject: Are all human genes epigenetically 'imprinted'?

What I'm actually meaning by asking this question is if only a few are maybe it 
would be possible to have a child using two female gametes but substituting a 
few genes from a male. This way, say, lesbians would be able to have children 
that were biologically theirs with only a few genes from a male donor. If 
almost all, or all, were imprinted maybe there is a way of 'disguising' the 
female imprinted genes with some kind of coating, like how viruses protect 
themselves with protein coatings.

Re: Are all human genes epigenetically 'imprinted'?