MadSci Network: General Biology |
Hi Tracey OK, probably more of a semantics/philosophy question than science, but here goes... The Oxford English Dictionary defines sound as a mass noun meaning "vibrations that travel through the air or another medium and can be heard when they reach a person's or animal's ear" in which case sound exists regardless of whether anyone or anything is there to hear it. However, Webster's (a US dictionary) defines it as a noun (not a mass noun) meaning "the sensation experienced when the brain interprets vibrations within the structure of the ear caused by rapid variations of air pressure". This second definition implies that sound DOESN'T exist outside the brain, but this is not true - the Websters definition is simply incomplete, and in afct some dictionaries give both definitions. The explanation for this is as follows; First, very low frequencies can be felt by animals not equipped to hear them, and so, although an elephant may hear a loud sound with a frequency of 5 hertz, a human could feel it as a rumble. So, it exists as a sound within the elephant's brain, but also externally. A loud sound could also affect something unequipped to experience it (e.g. a drum would vibrate as seen if beads are placed on it and a sound played). Similarly, very high pitched sounds can be heard by bats, but not humans, and if loud enough could cause damage/pain even though unheard. So, again this could exist both internally and externally. Second, the ear is simply a transducer i.e. a system that converts energy from one form (vibrations) to another (electrical impulses) therefore, sound exists both within the brain as sensation AND externally as vibrations in a medium - it is just the energetic form it takes that changes. Third, the vibrations and the experience of sound are different but fundamentally related entities - for example, if someone was mad and 'heard voices', these would not need air vibrations to generate them, but would probably also be a different sensation from true hearing as they would be created at a deeper level than the auditory pathway and would not pass from the ear at any point. Thus, they are separate from hearing as normally perceived and although they exist only in the brain, are not strictly speaking 'sound'. This is also relevant for the sounds heard due to tinnitus which are perceived even when in silent surroundings - it is simply damage to auditory apparatus being perceived by the brain via a transducer i.e the ear which can ONLY create sound, even when affected by a different stimulus. This is why your ears ring if you are hit on the head - it is a solid physical stimulus rather than vibration, but your ears are only able to respond one way. So, in summary I would say that no, sound does not only exist in the brain but that the sensation we experience is in a different form from the vibration that causes it, as the latter could still pass through the physical substance of the brain AT THE SAME TIME as the electrical impulses that generate the sensation/experience it causes. Anyhow, I hope that helps clarify (and not confuse) matters, Yours, Dr David Hubble, Hampshire, UK
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