|MadSci Network: Physics|
Since proper time is measured relative to the difference between the velocity of the observer and the observed, how is it that a wave phenomenon which depends on a time element be applicable to light, which has a proper time of zero? Doesn't this preclude any motion whatsoever for light? And, without any motion, how is it that we measure light as wavelength? Is this just a convenient construct with historical roots and no applicability, or is there a mistake in my framing?
Re: How does a proper time of zero for light square with waves?
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