|MadSci Network: Physics|
Using an Atwood machine, with pulleys, I determined the experimental value of g, taking into consideration inertia and pulley mass? Why is the percent error so large - 33%? Derived friction force from a line graph - potential for error here. Also, errors in measuring time possible. But if there were no human errors, would the accepted value of g equal the derived value if equation controlled for inertia and pulley mass?
Re: Why g differs from experimental g, even when adjusting for Inertia?
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