Subject: why does a magnetize nail don't have an equal amount on both ends of nail.

i would take an unmagnetize iron nail and rub it with a magnet to make it 
become magnetize. After rubbing an iron nail it will become magnetize.After 
the nail has been magnetize with north and south end it doesn't have equal 
amount of attraction or repulsion on both end. The method that i choose to 
measure this is through a compass. One reading would show that either the 
attraction is stronger than the replusion or vice versa. WHy is this?

Re: why does a magnetize nail don't have an equal amount on both ends of nail.