MadSci Network: Physics |
I've already read 855511961.Ph and it answered my basic question, which was why the gravitational accelaration ('g') of a planet could be determined solely by its mass. The answer implies that the ellipsoid shape of Earth compensates for this effect, but this explanation leaves something to be desired in my mind. Consider the following questions: - Is it true that if a perfect sphere were not rotating, the force on a body on its surface ('gravity' felt) would be _more_ than that of a planet that was rotating (due to centripital force)? And that this lessening of "gravity" would be maximal at the equator and nonexistant at the poles? - If above is true, then why are gravitational accelarations calculated on mass alone (or am I mistaken)? - If centripital force acts in the opposite direction as gravity (as would seem to be the case based on one's "natural sense") then why does the ellipsoid shape of the Earth explain a consistant value of 'g', since the Earth has its largest diameter at the equator? Shouldn't the Earth have to have its smallest diameter at the equator, so that the force of gravity would be stronger to compensate for the effect of "things on the surface of a spinning object wanting to fly off"? - Finally, I realise that "centripital" force is the force exerted ON a body to keep it in orbit, and this force is directed inwards and does no actual work on the body since it's always perpendicular to the direction of motion, but then what is "centrifugal" force? Its name would imply the force "coming out away from the center", or in other words the force most commonly associated with a spinning object, i.e. "when you spin something, things attached to it seem to want to fly off." Thank you for clearing up these uncertainties that have always haunted an otherwise lucent view of classical physics.
Re: gravity and centripital force of a rotating planet
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